Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 06:59
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Are you happy that soon we will never hear from Kamala Jones again?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Why do you think Filipinos are conservatives?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.